BAILII is celebrating 24 years of free online access to the law! Would you consider making a contribution?
No donation is too small. If every visitor before 31 December gives just £5, it will have a significant impact on BAILII's ability to continue providing free access to the law.
Thank you very much for your support!
[Home] [Databases] [World Law] [Multidatabase Search] [Help] [Feedback] | ||
England and Wales High Court (Queen's Bench Division) Decisions |
||
You are here: BAILII >> Databases >> England and Wales High Court (Queen's Bench Division) Decisions >> Baker v Hemming [2019] EWHC 2950 (QB) (05 November 2019) URL: http://www.bailii.org/ew/cases/EWHC/QB/2019/2950.html Cite as: [2019] EWHC 2950 (QB) |
[New search] [Printable PDF version] [Help]
QUEEN'S BENCH DIVISION
MEDIA AND COMMUNICATIONS LIST
Strand, London, WC2A 2LL |
||
B e f o r e :
____________________
Esther Ruth Baker |
Claimant |
|
- and - |
||
John Alexander Melvin Hemming |
Defendant |
____________________
Richard Owen-Thomas (instructed directly) for the Defendant
Hearing date: 17 October 2019
____________________
Crown Copyright ©
Mrs Justice Steyn :
A. Introduction
B. The claim
"I am pleased that the police have now made it clear that there has been a concerted effort to promote false criminal allegations against me and that the allegations had no substance whatsoever."
"It is bad enough to have false allegations made about yourself to the police, but to have a concerted campaign involving your political opponents and many others in public creates an environment in which it is reasonable to be concerned about ill-founded vigilante attacks on your family and yourself. Luckily there was a more substantial lobby to the contrary as well, which included many people who were themselves real survivors of abuse."
"Sky should recognise that not only was their broadcast of the original allegations in May 2015 a complete nonsense, but also had it been based upon truthful allegations that it would have undermined a criminal investigation. The attempts to drum up false complainants through the use of publicity highlights a difficulty with publicising cases whilst a police investigation is going on."
i) "Was a liar who had maliciously made up false allegations of rape about the Defendant" (Amended Particulars of Claimant, "AmPOC", para 6.1); and
ii) "There are reasonable grounds to suspect that by making such false allegations, the Claimant is guilty of perverting the course of justice" (AmPOC, para 6.3).
There is a dispute in respect of one further meaning pleaded by the Claimant. She contends the meaning is that she was "instrumental in a vigilante campaign" against the Defendant whereas he avers that the words mean that "the Claimant's lies had made him concerned he would be the subject of vigilante attack and encouraged vigilantism".
"John Hemming said their refusal to seek charges against his accuser Esther Baker undermined the criminal justice system and would encourage 'other fantasists' to make bogus paedophile claims."
i) "The Claimant is a fantasist who had made false allegations about the sexual abuse of children." (AmPOC, para 20.1)
ii) "The Claimant is in fact guilty of perverting the course of justice and should have been prosecuted accordingly." (AmPOC, para 20.2)
i) "The Claimant is untrustworthy" (AmPOC, para 24.1); and
ii) "The Claimant is not a suitable person to receive public funding for the Independent Inquiry into Childhood Sexual Abuse ("IICSA")" (AmPOC, para 24.2).
i) Limitation: the Defendant has raised a limitation defence on the basis that the claim was brought more than one year after the date of the first publication and he contends the single publication rule in s.8 of the Defamation Act 2013 applies to the second and third publications.
ii) Truth: the Defendant has pleaded detailed particulars of truth at paragraphs 28-45, 80 and 87 of the Amended Defence and Counterclaim ("AmDef").
iii) Qualified privilege of responding to attack is pleaded as a defence to each of the three publications (AmDef, paras 46-50, 81-82 and 89).
iv) Honest opinion is relied on in the alternative to truth in respect of the third publication (AmDef, para 88).
v) Set-off: the Defendant relies on his counterclaim as a defence by way of set-off of Ms Baker's claim (AmDef, paras 24, 77 and 85).
C. The counterclaim
"I accused an (then) MP of rape and sexual assault nearly 3 years ago. Since then I've been called every name under the sun & stalked relentlessly. With the news coming out of Westminster daily I'm reappealling for other victims of this "man" to come forward."
"The meaning of the paragraph in its natural and ordinary sense is that the Defendant raped and sexually assaulted the Claimant, then stalked and defamed her to cover it up. The reference to "other victims" means he committed other rapes and is a serial rapist." (AmDef, para 107)
"The words … also bear an innuendo meaning that the Defendant abused the Claimant as part of a ritual cult involving Cabinet Ministers, MPs, Lords and Judges" (AmDef, para 109).
D. Factual and procedural background
i) The Claimant served Particulars of Claim on 24 September 2018.
ii) The Defendant served his Defence and Counterclaim on 8 October 2018.
iii) Two days later, on 10 October 2018, the Defendant served a request for further information from the Claimant pursuant to CPR Part 18.
iv) The Claimant served a Reply to Defence and Defence to Counterclaim on 22 October 2018.
v) Also on 22 October 2018, the Claimant served a response to the Part 18 request. The vast majority of the Claimant's responses consisted of refusals to provide the information requested.
vi) On 6 November 2018, the Defendant served a Reply to the Defence to Counterclaim.
"1. The hearing of the Defendant's application for summary judgment be adjourned generally and dismissed with no order as to costs, unless an application to restore is made by 17th June [2019].
2. The Claimant do file and serve amended Particulars of Claim, by 29th April 2019.
3. The Defendant do, if so advised, file and serve an amended Defence and Counterclaim by 13th May 2019.
4. The Claimant … do file and serve a Reply to Defence and defence to counterclaim if any, if so advised by 27th May 2019.
5. The Defendant, if so advised, do have permission to file and serve a Reply to Defence to Counterclaim by 10th June 2019.
6. The Defendant has leave to make an amended Part 18 Request to the Claimant no later than 17th June 2019.
7. The Amended Particulars of Claim and/or Reply and Defence to Counterclaim, where appropriate, must include the following –
a. pleadings of the psychiatric diagnosis relied upon and specifics of alleged incapacity
b. all four of the publications complained of must be annexed in full
c. in respect of each publication:
i. properly pleaded innuendo meaning, or omitting innuendo meaning.
ii. proper pleading of malice
iii. proper pleading of serious harm
iv. proper particulars of truth, in respect of any meaning the Claimant contends to be true.
8. The Claimant do file and serve a consultant psychiatric report, compliant with Part 35 of the Civil Procedure Rules, by 4pm on 27th June 2019.
9. The Defendant do have liberty to apply for his own expert, or a single joint expert, if so advised, by 4pm on 1st July 2019.
10. The Claimant do pay the Defendant's costs of and arising from the adjourned hearing and amended pleadings to be subject to detailed assessment if not agreed.
11. The Defendant do have permission to commence detailed assessment forthwith."
(The Defendant applied to correct a clear and unambiguous error in paragraph 1 of the Order, which gave the year as "1019" rather than "2019", and I have done so.)
i) The Claimant served Amended Particulars of Claim on 13 May 2019.
ii) The Defendant served his Amended Defence and Counterclaim on 22 May 2019.
iii) The Claimant served an Amended Reply to Defence and Defence to Counterclaim on 4 June 2019.
iv) The Defendant served an Amended Reply to Defence to Counterclaim on 12 June 2019.
E. The legal framework
"(2) The court may strike out a statement of case if it appears to the court—
(a) that the statement of case discloses no reasonable grounds for bringing or defending the claim;
(b) that the statement of case is an abuse of the court's process or is otherwise likely to obstruct the just disposal of the proceedings; or
(c) that there has been a failure to comply with a rule, practice direction or court order."
"The court may give summary judgment against a claimant or defendant on the whole of a claim or on a particular issue if –
(a) it considers that -
(i) that claimant has no real prospect of succeeding on the claim or issue; or
(ii) that defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim or issue; and
(b) there is no other compelling reason why the case or issue should be disposed of at a trial."
"2.1 Statements of case should be confined to the information necessary to inform the other party of the nature of the case he has to meet. Such information should be set out concisely and in a manner proportionate to the subject matter of the claim."
"2.5 Where a defendant alleges that the words complained of are true he must –
Specify the defamatory meanings he seeks to justify; and
Give details of the matters on which he relies in support of that allegation."
"2.8 Where a defendant alleges that the words complained of are true, or are honest opinion, the claimant must serve a reply specifically admitting or denying the allegation and giving the facts on which he relies."
"2.9 If the defendant contends that any of the words or matters are honest opinion, or were published on a privileged occasion, and the claimant intends to allege that the defendant acted with malice, the claimant must serve a reply giving details of the facts or matters relied on."
"If his statement of case has been served, a party may amend it only –
(a) with the written consent of all the other parties; or
(b) with the permission of the court."
"The time limit under section 2 of this Act shall not apply to an action for—
(a) libel or slander, or
(b) slander of title, slander of goods or other malicious falsehood,
but no such action shall be brought after the expiration of one year from the date on which the cause of action accrued."
"(1) Subject to the following provisions of this section, if on the date when any right of action accrued for which a period of limitation is prescribed by this Act, the person to whom it accrued was under a disability, the action may be brought at any time before the expiration of six years from the date when he ceased to be under a disability or died (whichever first occurred) notwithstanding that the period of limitation has expired.
…
(4A) If the action is one to which section 4A of this Act applies, subsection (1) above shall have effect—
(a) in the case of an action for libel or slander, as if for the words from "at any time" to "occurred)" there were substituted the words "by him at any time before the expiration of one year from the date on which he ceased to be under a disability"; and
(b) in the case of an action for slander of title, slander of goods or other malicious falsehood, as if for the words "six years" there were substituted the words "one year".
…"
"For the purposes of this Act a person shall be treated as under a disability while he is an infant or lacks capacity (within the meaning of the Mental Capacity Act 2005) to conduct legal proceedings."
"(1) If it appears to the court that it would be equitable to allow an action to proceed having regard to the degree to which –
(a) the operation of section 4A of this Act prejudices the plaintiff or any person whom he represents, and
(b) any decision of the court under this subsection would prejudice the defendant or any person whom he represents,
the court may direct that that section shall not apply to the action or shall not apply to any specified cause of action to which the action relates.
(2) In acting under this section the court shall have regard to all the circumstances of the case and in particular to—
(a) the length of, and the reasons for, the delay on the part of the plaintiff;
(b) where the reason or one of the reasons for the delay was that all or any of the facts relevant to the cause of action did not become known to the plaintiff until after the end of the period mentioned in section 4A—
(i) the date on which any such facts did become known to him, and
(ii) the extent to which he acted promptly and reasonably once he knew whether or not the facts in question might be capable of giving rise to an action; and
(c) the extent to which, having regard to the delay, relevant evidence is likely—
(i) to be unavailable, or
(ii) to be less cogent than if the action had been brought within the period mentioned in section 4A."
"For the purposes of this Act, a person lacks capacity in relation to a matter if at the material time he is unable to make a decision for himself in relation to the matter because of an impairment of, or a disturbance in the functioning of, the mind or brain."
"For the purposes of section 2, a person is unable to make a decision for himself if he is unable–
(a) to understand the information relevant to the decision,
(b) to retain that information,
(c) to use or weigh that information as part of the process of making the decision, or
(d) to communicate his decision (whether by talking, using sign language or any other means)."
F. CPR 3.4(2)(c): the Claimant's non-compliance
(a) Limitation
i) to plead the psychiatric diagnosis on which she relies for the purpose of contending that she was under a disability when the first publication was published on 5 September 2017;
ii) to plead the specifics of her alleged incapacity; and
iii) to file and serve a consultant psychiatric report, compliant with Part 35 of the Civil Procedure Rules, by 4pm on 27 June 2019.
"7. As to paragraph 8 the Defendant denies that the Claimant was unable due to disability to conduct these proceedings from 5th September to 20th December [2017]. Evidence of this will be fully provided in disclosure. As an interim reply the Claimant can state that she was in residential Mental Health Care from 05/09/17 through to 29/09/17. …
8. … The Claimant has been diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder, psycho-sexual trauma disorder and complex PTSD …"
i) "Please set out the specific disabilities you rely on in regards to limitation including the diagnosis and any medication", to which she responded that this had been specified in the reply; and
ii) "Please identify the medication changes you rely on in respect of limitation", to which she responded that this would be supplied on disclosure.
"you do need to plead that because the Limitation Act is going to be argued against you, it is going to be argued you are out of time and if you're arguing disability then it is, the obligation is on you to show the disability by means of psychiatric evidence and I have already said to you what has been given so far is inadequate …"
(b) Meaning
"There are a number of things about your particulars of claim and your absence of a proper, or any, response actually to the Part 18 that need addressing. The Defendant is entitled to know the case that he is meeting and he does not at the moment, not in full. And … if I allow this application for an adjournment …, I will have some observations to make in relation to aspects of the way the particulars of claim has been pleaded and aspects in terms of the absence of a response to the Part 18 and … your response to the counterclaim." (transcript, p.9)
"… you have not responded to the Part 18 at all and much of it you do need to respond to, maybe not every single question and legal advice will be able to advise you on that … I am not here to advise you but a lot of the questions that have been asked of you are perfectly proper questions and you cannot simply say, I am not responding to that, you just cannot do it and you are sailing close to the wind in relation to being struck out." (transcript, pp.16-17)
"…if I give you this one opportunity and I qualify it in that way you should be under no misapprehension that if things are not progressed further or in a better way I, or whichever judge hears this matter next, will have a lot less sympathy than we have in relation to today." (transcript, p.40)
(c) Malice
"If the Court find that the defamation falls within the defence of qualified privilege then the Claimant will aver malice."
(d) Truth – the counterclaim
(e) Truth – the claim
i) The Claimant maliciously made up false allegations of rape about the Defendant;
ii) The Claimant is a fantasist who made false allegations about the sexual abuse of children;
iii) The Claimant is guilty of perverting the course of justice and should have been prosecuted accordingly.
iv) There are reasonable grounds to suspect the Claimant is guilty of perverting the course of justice by making false allegations.
v) The Claimant is a liar and untrustworthy.
vi) The Claimant is not a suitable person to receive public funding for IICSA.
vii) The Claimant's lies had made the Defendant concerned he would be the subject of vigilante attack and encouraged vigilantism.
i) In respect of the key allegation at para 37 of the Amended Defence, the Claimant admits that she alleged to the police that the perpetrator had the two specified distinguishing features, suggests that as far as she[1] is aware these identification issues have never been resolved, and denies the remainder of the paragraph.
ii) At paragraph 24 of the Amended Reply, the Claimant admits that she has alleged that she was raped by other public figures, including a named, well-known (now deceased) politician, who she has claimed were the Defendant's accomplices and part of the same purported group as the Defendant.
iii) Paragraph 26 of the Amended Reply states that the Claimant "maintains the truth of her allegations". The pleading does not specify what allegations the Claimant maintains are true. Paragraph 26 of the Amended Reply responds to paragraph 40 of the Amended Defence, which concerns allegations the Claimant has made (but not pleaded) against the deceased politician referred to above. So it may be a reference to those allegations or, as the reference in the same paragraph to seeking "transcripts of all material relating to the Defendant" suggests, it may refer to the allegations the Claimant has made (but not pleaded) against the Defendant.
iv) At paragraph 28 of the Amended Reply the Claimant has denied that her allegations are implausible and stated that she intends to show that the Defendant "had connections to Staffordshire at the time in question". Similarly, at paragraph 31 she has pleaded that "there are various references and connections between the Defendant and the Staffordshire area".
v) At paragraph 31 of the Amended Reply, in response to the Defendant's pleading that the Claimant's allegations against him are false and that she knows they are false and lied, the Claimant has pleaded a denial and put the Defendant to proof.
i) The obligation flowed from the practice direction. Nevertheless, it is understandable in a complex case like this that the Claimant, who has no legal training, may have had difficulty understanding fully what the reference in PD53, para 2.8 to admitting or denying "the allegation" encompassed in the context of this case. The allegations were the meanings of the first, second and third publications which the Defendant pleaded were true.
ii) The Claimant has responded in some detail to the particulars of truth pleaded by the Defendant, and she may have understood those matters to be the allegations to which she was required to respond.
iii) The Order specified a number of matters that the Claimant needed to properly particularise, but it did not specifically alert her to the need to give particulars in support of her denial of the truth of any meaning the Defendant contends is true. Paragraph 7(c)(iv) of the Order required the Claimant to provide proper particulars of truth in respect of any meaning the Claimant contends to be true. That clearly encompassed any assertion by the Claimant that her allegation that the Defendant had raped her was true because that was the subject of the counterclaim, but it did not encompass giving particulars of her denials of the truth of the first, second and third publications (in the meanings alleged to be true by the Defendant) insofar as those went beyond asserting that the Claimant's allegations of rape were false.
iv) The discussion at the earlier hearing was such that it should have been clear to the Claimant that if she intended to contend her allegations that she was raped by the Defendant were true, she had to plead that in her Amended Particulars of Claim or in her Amended Reply. But there was no discussion of the need for her to give particulars of any denial of each of the meanings which the Defendant contended were true.
G. The Defendant's application pursuant to CPR 3.4(2)(a) and CPR 24.2
(a) The counterclaim
i) It is not disputed that the Claimant published the Tweet.
ii) Nor is it disputed that the Tweet referred to the Defendant and would have been understood by some members of the public who read it as referring to the Defendant.
iii) I have struck out the Claimant's denial of the natural and ordinary meaning of the Tweet pleaded by the Defendant at paragraph 107 of the Amended Defence (see paragraphs 55 to 66 above).
iv) At common law, a statement is defamatory of a claimant if, but only if (a) it imputes conduct which would tend to lower the claimant in the estimation of right-thinking people generally, and (b) the imputation substantially affects in an adverse manner the attitude of other people towards him, or has a tendency to do so: see Lachaux v Independent Print Ltd [2019] UKSC 27, [2019] 3 WLR 18 at [6]-[9], citing Sim v Stretch [1936] 2 All ER 1237, per Lord Atkin at 1240 and Thornton v Telegraph Media Group Ltd [2011] 1 WLR 1985, per Tugendhat J at [96]. A statement which bears the meaning that the Defendant raped and sexually assaulted the Claimant, then stalked and defamed her to cover it up, and that he is a serial rapist who has committed other rapes, obviously meets the test of being defamatory at common law of the Defendant.
v) The Claimant has not raised any defences to the counterclaim. In her original reply and defence to counterclaim she had averred, in a bare form unsupported by particulars, the defences of truth, honest opinion, set off of the original claim and the privilege of responding to attack. All those defences have been removed from the Amended Reply.
vi) The only contention that the Claimant seeks to raise in opposition to the counterclaim, insofar as it is based on the natural and ordinary meaning of the words, is a denial that the words complained of have caused or are likely to cause serious harm to the reputation of the Defendant. For the reasons I explain below, this contention is hopeless.
"…section 1 necessarily means that a statement which would previously have been regarded as defamatory, because of its inherent tendency to cause some harm to reputation, is not to be so regarded unless it "has caused or is likely to cause" harm which is "serious". The reference to a situation where the statement "has caused" serious harm is to the consequences of the publication, and not the publication itself. It points to some historic harm, which is shown to have actually occurred. This is a proposition of fact which can be established only by reference to the impact which the statement is shown actually to have had. It depends on a combination of the inherent tendency of the words and their actual impact on those to whom they were communicated. The same must be true of the reference to harm which is "likely" to be caused. In this context, the phrase naturally refers to probable future harm."
(b) The claim
"…in general terms, it is not often that it will be satisfactory for a judge to uphold a defence of qualified privilege on a summary basis where it may depend, in part, on facts which are controversial and would ordinarily require to be determined at trial: see e.g. the discussion in Kearns v General Council of the Bar [2003] 1 WLR 1357."
H. The Defendant's application pursuant to CPR 3.4(2)(b): abuse of process
I. The Claimant's data protection claim
i) The claim as currently pleaded relies on an Act which has been repealed. The basis on which the Claimant relies on the Data Protection Act 1998 is not apparent. Although the Data Protection Act 2018 contains, in Schedule 20, certain transitional provisions, on the face of it those provisions do not appear to provide a basis for the Claimant's reliance on the 1998 Act in this case.
ii) I have explained that the Claimant is precluded from denying that her allegations against the Defendant were untrue. That preclusion applies equally to any claim of breach of data protection legislation.
J. The Claimant's application
"a. We are not acting in the defamation claim.
b. We did not have any input into the contents of the CrowdJustice page, authorise its contents or authorise the use of our name.
..
d. We have requested that our name be removed from the CrowdJustice page. We understand that the CrowdJustice Page has been removed from the Internet until an alternative lawyer can be found."
K. Conclusion
i) The Claimant's application is dismissed.
ii) The Defendant's application is allowed to the following extent (and otherwise dismissed):
a) The Claimant's reliance on s.28 of the Limitation Act 1980 in her Amended Reply is struck out pursuant to CPR 3.4(2)(c);
b) The Claimant's plea of malice in response to the Defendant's reliance on the defence of qualified privilege is struck out pursuant to CPR 3.4(2)(c).
c) The Claimant's denial that her allegations of rape and sexual abuse by the Defendant were untrue is struck out pursuant to CPR 3.4(2)(c).
d) The allegation made against the Defendant in the fifth sentence of paragraph 20 of the Claimant's Amended Reply is struck out pursuant to CPR 3.4(2)(b).
e) The Claimant's denial that the words complained of in the counterclaim bear the natural and ordinary meaning pleaded by the Defendant in paragraph 107 of the Amended Defence and Counterclaim is struck out pursuant to CPR3.4(2)(c);
f) The Claimant's denial that publication of the words complained of in the counterclaim (insofar as they bear the natural and ordinary meaning pleaded at paragraph 107 of the Amended Defence and Counterclaim) caused or is likely to cause serious harm to the reputation of the Defendant, is struck out pursuant to CPR 3.4(2)(a) and summarily dismissed pursuant to CPR 24.2.
g) The Claimant's defence to the counterclaim (contained in her Amended Reply), insofar as the counterclaim is based on the natural and ordinary meaning pleaded by the Defendant at paragraph 107 of the Amended Defence and Counterclaim, is struck out pursuant to CPR 3.4(2)(a) and summarily dismissed pursuant to CPR 24.2.
h) Judgment for the Defendant on the counterclaim, insofar as the counterclaim is based on the natural and ordinary meaning pleaded by the Defendant at paragraph 107 of the Amended Defence and Counterclaim, with damages to be assessed.
iii) The Claimant's defamation claim will be struck out unless by 4pm on 17 December 2019 the Claimant serves a Re-Amended Reply to Defence:
a) Admitting or denying the truth of each allegation contained in the meanings of the first, second and third publications which the Defendant has pleaded are true (save that the Claimant is precluded from denying that her allegations that the Defendant raped or sexually assaulted her or any other person were untrue); and
b) Giving the facts on which she relies in support of any denial pursuant to (i) above.
iv) The parties shall make submissions in writing with respect to any further case management directions sought, and as to the appropriate order for costs, such submissions to be filed and served on the other party by 4pm on 12 November 2019.
Note 1 The refence to “the Defendant”, rather than the Claimant, in the third sentence of para 23 of the Claimant’s Amended Reply appears to be a typographical error. [Back]